Over at my favorite blog, Norm references an anomaly in sexual surveys: men report having many more sexual partners than women. According to the so-called High-School Prom Theorem, the totals of sexual partners for men and for women should be the same, with the implicit assumptions that any given survey population includes all of the putative sexual partners in that survey, all of whom are truthful. So why is the stud-to-slut ratio greater than 1.0 for most, if not all, surveys?
The most likely explanation is that: for men, stud is an honorific, whereas for women, slut is a reputation. The other explanation often suggested, that survey populations do not normally include all participants (such as prostitutes), is not likely to be a significant factor for large enough survey populations.
But there is another possibility, which is not mentioned in the referenced article. The Theorem does not apply to same-sex partners. There may be more of those among men, some of whom are likely to be bi-sexual, than among women, some of whom are also bi-sexual. Some of those surveyed, men and women, who have had partners of both sexes, may be reporting all their partners. Do the math, brofo.
The most likely explanation is that: for men, stud is an honorific, whereas for women, slut is a reputation. The other explanation often suggested, that survey populations do not normally include all participants (such as prostitutes), is not likely to be a significant factor for large enough survey populations.
But there is another possibility, which is not mentioned in the referenced article. The Theorem does not apply to same-sex partners. There may be more of those among men, some of whom are likely to be bi-sexual, than among women, some of whom are also bi-sexual. Some of those surveyed, men and women, who have had partners of both sexes, may be reporting all their partners. Do the math, brofo.
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